Luke 21:24 says that they "will fall by the edge of the sword and Jerusalem will be trampled on by the nations until the appointed times of the nations are fulfilled." However, the WT promotes the idea that Jerusalem is trampled on from 607 BCE to 1914 CE. If that is true, why didn't Jesus Christ use the proper tense in this scripture? At the time of Jesus Christ saying that, Jerusalem would've already been trampled for hundreds of years. Both Aramaic and koine Greek have tenses that cover ongoing action as opposed to future action. For example, shouldn't Jesus have said they "are falling by the edge of the sword and Jerusalem is being trampled on by the nations until the appointed times of the nations are fulfilled"?