Is Jesus Michael the Archangel?

Discussion in 'General Discussions' started by Joshuastone7, Aug 5, 2017.

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    Joshuastone7

    Joshuastone7 Administrator Staff Member

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    Is Jesus Michael, the Archangel?

    This question has been debated for thousands of years, and I would like to add this discussion here to our congregation in order to really dig into what scripture is ultimately telling us.

    Let's start with 1Th 4:16;

    1Th 4:16 "because the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel’s voice and with God’s trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first."

    This scripture says our Lord descends with a "commanding call, with an archangels voice". Is this scripture telling us that Jesus is an Archangel? How about this, are there more then one archangels in the Bible? It just so happens that in fact there is no existence of Archangel in the plural form anywhere within the text.

    (The Adam Clarke Commentary - Jude )
    "Let it be observed that the word archangel is never found in the plural number in the sacred writings. There can be properly only one archangel, one chief or head of all the angelic host."

    So, according to 1Th 4:16 Jesus is seen commanding with an Archangels voice, even though there is only one archangel.

    So what about the definition of Archangel? The original Greek word is "archaggelos" and is defined as "chief angel" or "ruling angel". So again, It's interesting we have a connection in 1Th 4:16 of our Lord acting as the "chief angel" as if the Archangel, even given there is only one Archangel.

    Now, let's look at Michael;

    Jude 1:9 "But when Miʹcha·el the archangel had a difference with the Devil and was disputing about Moses’ body, he did not dare to bring a judgment against him in abusive terms, but said: “May Jehovah rebuke you.”

    Here in Jude, Michael is described as "the Archangel", so therefore there is no debating the fact that Michael is the chief angel, that one ruling over all other angels, but has this always been the case with Michael?

    Let's look in Daniel;

    Dan 10:13 "But then Miʹcha·el, one of the foremost princes, came to help me; and I remained there beside the kings of Persia."

    Here Michael is described as "one of the foremost princes" not "the chief prince". What's the difference, is it time, a certain event that changed that? There certainly was one very dramatic event in between the writings of Daniel and Revelation, and that was our Lord Jesus coming here to earth and then beginning his rule once he sat on his Fathers throne.

    And how about that, can we determine the Michael before Jesus was on earth had any role in the workings Christ Jesus would eventually accomplish?

    Let's look at Daniel;

    Dan 12:1 "During that time Michael will stand up, the great prince who is standing in behalf of your people."

    Dan 10:21 "However, I will tell you the things recorded in the writings of truth. There is no one strongly supporting me in these things but Miʹcha·el, your prince."

    Daniel Describes Michael as "the great Prince" and "your Prince". So Michael was the Prince of mankind, you know what this reminds me of?

    Let's read Gen 3:15;

    Gen 3:15 "And I will put enmity between you and the woman and between your offspring and her offspring. He will crush your head, and you will strike him in the heel.”

    The offspring of the women, the one that crushes the head of the serpent, the son of man, the Word, first born born of Jehovah God, and the Prince?

    What is the definition of the name Michael? Michael means "Who is like God". Does this remind of you of anything?

    Some might say, "If Jesus was the Word, and master worker, wouldn't he have already had a higher position then all other angels before he came to earth?", and my response to that is, where do you find that? I can't seem to find that scripture. Therefore doesn't that tell us that impression isn't supported in the text?

    Here is another point to consider, both are described as leading the angelic army;

    Rev 12:7 "And war broke out in heaven: Miʹcha·el and his angels battled with the dragon, and the dragon and its angels battled."

    Rev 19:14-16 "Also, the armies in heaven were following him on white horses, and they were clothed in white, clean, fine linen. And out of his mouth protrudes a sharp, long sword with which to strike the nations, and he will shepherd them with a rod of iron. Moreover, he treads the winepress of the fury of the wrath of God the Almighty. On his outer garment, yes, on his thigh, he has a name written, King of kings and Lord of lords."

    So would there be two separate angelic armies, led by two separate individuals?

    Are we seeing a description of the pre-human existence of the "Word" as a prince, and one of the foremost angels, then after his coming to die for mankind and taking his Father's throne becoming the "chief angel" and ruling one known as the Archangel?

    You tell me, feel free to add to this ages old debate, as I myself continue to ponder these things...

    Love you all...

    AJ
     
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    BreakTheWalls

    BreakTheWalls Guest

    Some might say, "If Jesus was the Word, and master worker, wouldn't he have already had a higher position then all other angels before he came to earth?", and my response to that is, where do you find that? I can't seem to find that scripture. Therefore doesn't that tell us that impression isn't supported in the text?

    Note, in Philippians 2. Jehovah gives Jesus, a name above every name. So Jesus, before receiving the name that is above every name, had a name that wasn't above every name.

    I personally think, this is referring to his millennial reign. He will be in charge of the kingdom for 1000 years, then Jehovah will take back the name/throne/kingdom.
     
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    Regent Lessard

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    Joshua, you gave us a lot to ponder on, I will give a little more. We will turn in our bible to Heb:2:5- For it is not to "Angles" that he has subjected the inhabited earth to come. In this vs it is clear that Jehovah is not going to subject the earth to come by "Angeles" and we know to whom Jehovah has given that work to, it is to Christ and all the first fruits of this earth Rev:5:10. In the Bible their is always two side to the medal for understanding it, and maybe we have to look on the rim of it to. Ahh, things are not so simple, but in this exchange of "Love" we are accomplishing Heb:10:24,25, May Jehovah's blessing be with you all, Regent
     
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    Baruq

    Baruq Member

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    Michael is not exactly "who is like God", but "who is like God?", with the question mark at the end.
    The one who bears this name asks who is comparable to God. In what event was it alleged that it was possible to be like God? Genesis 3:5: For God knows that in the very day you eat from it, your eyes will be opened and you will be like God, knowing good and bad.
    So this Michael was present at that point in history and offended that someone could claim to be like God.
     
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    Cristo

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    (Isa 9:6-7) “. . .For there has been a child born to us, there has been a son given to us; and the princely rule will come to be upon his shoulder. And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace. 7 To the abundance of the princely rule and to peace there will be no end,. . .”



    -
     
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    Joshuastone7

    Joshuastone7 Administrator Staff Member

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    Thank you for that Cristo, I missed that one, and it really ties in nicely with the fact that Michael is called our prince in Daniel...
     
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    Earthbound

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    In the original Greek, they somehow got by without needing to specify "a," "an" or "the," leaving open enough room for sides to believe which one goes in the hole there. With the Hebrews, they didn't need vowels. They were the shorthand texters of their day.

    It seems that one begins here by deciding whether to put "an" or "the" or just paraphrase the passage entirely. If one inserts "an" here, then you have your first piece of scriptural proof that there were more than one archangels. If you go with "the," then you have a proof-text that there is only one archangel.

    Then there's the question: Did the Jews in Paul's day believe there was more than one archangel during the first century, and are there any Jewish writings contemporary with Paul that could shed light on the Jewish understanding of the hierarchy within the heavens. For example, we know that Paul was among the Jews who believed there were at least three (2 Corinthians 12:2) unique heavens, or tiers, perhaps. There are Christians today who believe that Gabriel is also an archangel, but what was the first century's Jew's belief about Gabriel? Surely we have the means to find out easier than any other time in history, right?

    As to Clarke's Commentary, the "sacred writings" he is referring to are those chosen by the Roman Catholic Church, upon which the Protestant Bible is derived. But the writers of the epistles never really viewed their letters as sacred in a way that the Torah, for example, was sacred. It would be later followers of followers who followed followers of Jesus's apostles. And the scrolls of the Prophets were sacred, of course. As a Pharisee, Paul would've had access to still more texts considered sacred among Jews. What other scrolls have Jews gone to great lengths to preserve? What light do the Dead Sea Scrolls shed on the goings-on of the heavenly realm? Someone clearly saw fit to preserve those writings alongside the treasured scrolls of Isaiah and Daniel and all the others we are very familiar with.

    [Continued in next post]

    ~~Earthbound
     
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    Earthbound

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    This still is dependent on whether one inserts "a" or "the" in front. Are we talking about a "chief angel" or a "ruling angel" -OR- are we talking about the "chief angel" or the "ruling angel," because whichever one a person chooses here will set the course for what they build on this into their system of belief.


    Again, this is entirely dependent on someone asserting "the" where "an" is equally possible, given the absence of articles in the original language of Greek.


    Is it your position that Michael was promoted from being "one of the foremost princes" to "chief angel" or "ruling angel" through his earthly existence as Jesus of Nazareth?



    I believe you are mistaken when you say "Michael was the Prince of mankind" in regard to the two verses you cited above. "Your people" is in reference to the Jews. That is how Daniel understood it and wrote it down. I'll leave it to others to argue that Daniel was wrong, or that the angel who was delivering the message misled Daniel by meaning some other people.

    It is the same with the second verse cited: "your prince" is in reference to the angel who held a station over the Jews, considering how we read earlier in this passage you quoted in part:

    But the prince of the royal realm of Persia was standing in opposition to me for twenty-one days, and, look! Mi'cha·el, one of the foremost princes, came to help me; and I, for my part, remained there beside the kings of Persia. — Daniel 10:13, NWT

    The Persians had a prince of their own, one who was preventing the angel from getting through to Daniel. If Jacob was able to wrestle with an angel all night, imagine two angelic beings fighting for 21 days! The angel here describes Michael as "one of [gap] foremost princes." Who were the other princes considered foremost among angels in Daniel's day?


    I'm not sure I understand the "some might say" part. Do they provide any scriptures they believe support their position? And are you referring to the belief that Jesus existed as the Word before he came into existence as Jesus of Nazareth, and that through Jesus in his pre-human existence, Jehovah created all things, by default making him greater than what was created through him...? Or is there something else I'm missing here?

    Alright, this is a great time for me to ask you this question:

    Do you personally believe that the extent of Jesus' glorification makes him equal to "the dragon and its angels?"

    Because the Jesus *I* try to follow is now second in command of Creation, and Satan is part of the Creation. With a word, Satan could be removed from existence by Jesus. To suggest that Satan could actually battle Jesus at this point is incredulous to me. It seems far more reasonable to me, then, to see Michael as one of the foremost princes among the angelic hosts who is in command of a battalion of angels who battle with Satan and his "third of the angels," later described in the Revelation of Jesus Christ. Jesus is overseeing this heavenly housecleaning, but it is the angels who participate in the battle, casting their fallen brethren to the earth in a powerful display of recognition of not only Jehovah's sovereignty, but of Jesus' rulership over even them. The angel who has earned the greatest reputation for standing with integrity before Jehovah earned the title of challenge to any who would stand opposed. Just as Jacob earned the name meaning "wrestled with God," becoming known as Israel, this angel earned the name meaning "Who is like God?" which we translate as "Michael."

    The apostle Paul indicated a belief that he and others would be placed in a position over the angels, which arguably would include the foremost angels and any archangel(s).

    Do you not know that we are to sit in judgement upon angels--to say nothing of things belonging to this life? — 1 Corinthians 6:3, Weymouth

    Submitted for your perusal and consideration,
    ~~Earthbound
     
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    Joshuastone7

    Joshuastone7 Administrator Staff Member

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    The first thing that comes to mind is the fact that Jude 1:9 includes the original Greek "ho" meaning "the", and this along with 1Th 4:16 are the only two places in scripture "archangel" is mentioned. So the debate is not if Michael is an archangel, it's a question whether 1Th is telling us our Lord is as well, and the question is whether they are speaking of the same individual.

    Something to consider is the fact that the text never makes "archangel" plural. In describing "angels" the text has no problem with telling us in no uncertain terms that angels are plural. So, there is an absence of plurality.

    The next thing I think about is context, what is 1Th trying to say? Is the text saying "with a commanding call, with (one of those) archangel’s voice"? Why would the text say our Lord is commanding in "those" archangels voice if there is only one mentioned in scripture as an archangel, Michael? Is our Lord speaking like Michael (if they are not the same individual), and does that make since, wouldn't our Lords words have more weight if he spoke in his own voice, rather then that of Michael a lower ranking individual? Then the next question I ask is why 1Th would be saying Christ Jesus would be speaking in the voice of another, simply put, what is the contextual meaning for this, is it not more so to tell us our Lord is speaking in a "chiefly" or "ruling" manner, is this not ultimately the reason for including this statement in the text?

    Ultimately can this one scripture give us the answer we are looking for? I don't think so...

    Could it not be said no matter what is entered there, "an", "the", one could make a case for the statement referring to someone other then Christ?

    I'm starting to think that the text isn't trying to identify the archangel, but identify how Jesus is speaking, that seems to me to be the reason for its inclusion. So in that case, could we say that since our Lord is speaking in an archangels voice he is either "the" archangel, or "an" archangel, and if this is the case, can another angel be an archangel in equality to Jesus, can another angel speak equal commands as Christ Jesus the ruler himself? If we debate whether the text is intending Jesus to either be "the" archangel" or "an" archangel" then we are also saying other angels can be equal to Jesus, and I don't believe other text support that.

    Ph 2:9 "Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,"

    It would be my current contention that the Word lived in heaven as a foremost prince, and then gave up that life, died to it, and somehow that life force was transferred into the womb of Mary. Then once that life force (Jesus Christ) died as our glorious sacrifice, the Word, along with that Jesus were created into a new being, that became the "archangel" or "chief ruler". A new creation with life within himself...

    At least that is my current understanding...

    Joh 3:31 "The one who comes from above is above all; the one who is from the earth belongs to the earth, and speaks as one from the earth. The one who comes from heaven is above all." NIV

    Yes I agree with you, but (and you knew that had to be coming..lol) that's only if you believe that Dan 12 will have no fulfillment in our future.

    There are some who believe Dan 12 had a fulfillment in the first century, and others believe it will be fulfilled in our future, but as you know I believe Dan 12 has multiple fulfillment's, each showing a measuring stick for the finally to come.

    Then we must factor in, what is a Jew. It has been my contention that the first fulfillment of the 70 weeks occurred from Israels captivity to Babylon, to Cornelius's baptism. That 70th week beginning when our Lord is baptized, and the covenant that was kept in force for the many was that of the kingdom, and Messiah, and the "many" were the Jews (a common term). (Dan 9) Then at the half of that week the sacrifices at the temple were cut off, when they were no longer needed for our Lord was the sacrifice once for all, hence the splitting of the curtain in the temple. Then 1260 days later, or the final day of the last half of the 70th week Cornelius was baptized, fulfilling Peters vision of the sheet coming down filled with all unclean animals Jehovah had made clean, and at which point all mankind could become a Jew which at this point is metaphoric for all believers.

    In my humble opinion of course dear brother...

    Therefore that would mean Dan 12 has a future fulfillment, and Michael would be the prince of all believing mankind. After all, the very next text speaks of a resurrection, which I believe to be literal...

    Dan 12:2 "And many of those asleep in the dust of the earth will wake up, some to everlasting life and others to reproach and to everlasting contempt."

    True, "princes" would have included forces against Michael as well, but what about "foremost"? Is it speaking as to rankings among angels, or among Gods people? It seems the inclusion of "Michael, your prince" gives us an inclination to what "foremost prince" means. I don't see it as defining rank between the prince of Persia and Michael, more so to tell us that Michael is one of the foremost princes among the Jews.

    Unless I'm missing something here, the "great" prince, and "foremost" prince would be titles only given to those within Gods kingdom.

    Then the other side to this is, the Dragon is described as "great" as well, but of course not in the context of the Jews.

    No, I never meant to infer that there was a challenge from Satan and his armies, but we may also keep in mind that which we have spoke of in this same conversation, the prince of Persia was able to resist Michael the archangel, therefore there was some sort of challenge between forces...

    With that said, I actually believe that Satan and his angels will be abyssed almost a year before Armageddon even begins, and believe Armageddon is a war between mankind and our Christ, and we all know how that will end, in a flood.

    You see I currently believe the battle between Michael and Satan occurred the moment Jesus returned to heaven to sit on his Fathers throne, and that was the moment Satan was cast out, to wage war with the "remaining ones" for that last half of the 70th week before Cornelius was baptized.

    Can we say Paul is speaking of angels in heaven, it speaks of judgement does it not?

    All love...
     
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    Tsaphah

    Tsaphah Experienced Member

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    Now at that time Michael, the great prince who stands guard over the sons of your people, will arise. And there will be a time of distress such as never occurred since there was a nation until that time; and at that time your people, everyone who is found written in the book, will be rescued.” ( Dan 12:1 NASB ) Where do we find that book that is going to be opened?

    I will state that the following scriptures will prove to anyone with common sense, that the person we know as Jesus Christ, the anointed of Jehovah God, is Michael The Archangel! The name Michael, meaning in Hebrew: who is like god, is not a question. It is a descriptive statement. The Hebrew and Aramaic words translated as “prince” is sar. As I stated in my post to “Did the gentile times begin in 607 BCE or 70 CE? - #11”, the name is a composite word; miy = (me/mah) = who, an interrogative pronoun of persons, + ka (kaw) = is like, + el = god. “...the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelieving so that they might not see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.” (2 Co 4:4 NASB ) “He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.” (Col 1:15) Who else in the Bible is “like God”?

    He “stands guard over the sons of your people,” = not Jews, it’s Israel! The Nation! These were the people that Jehovah God chose to represent Him. Jews are from one tribe of the twelve, Judah. So, now we have another people who represent Jehovah God, and, His Son Jesus Christ, our king to be; we are Spiritual Israel.

    The following scriptures tie this together. I assume that everyone here knows who the lamb is!
    Rev 13:8, mentions those not written in the “book of life of the Lamb who has been slain.”

    And I saw the dead, the great and the small, standing before the throne, and books were opened; and another book was opened, which is the book of life; and the dead were judged from the things which were written in the books, according to their deeds.” ( Rev 20:12 NASB )

    Then we find, “And if anyone’s name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire.” ( Rev 20:15 NASB )

    Who is the one judging from this “book of life”? It is the person we know as Jesus. He existed as the first creation of his father Jehovah. His name is Michael! “the firstborn of all creation.” (Col 1:15)
     
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    Baruq

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    I am surprise that you say this, Tsaphah, because I have always read that it was a question. In fact, I did not find a website that says the contrary. For example, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quis_ut_Deus?.
    Do you have some valid reason to think that it is a descriptive statement?
     
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    Joshuastone7

    Joshuastone7 Administrator Staff Member

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    Goof afternoon brother,

    I don't want to answer for Tsaphah, but I'll offer my own two cents...

    It should be pretty obvious that Wikipedia is wrong. If you google Michael you get the same answer;

    "From the Hebrew name מִיכָאֵל (Mikha'el) meaning "who is like God?". This is a rhetorical question, implying no person is like God."

    Obviously that is wrong given Jesus is the exact image of Jehovah, having created Jesus as a mirror image of himself.

    1Cor 1:15 "The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation."

    Obviously without it being a question, then that makes Michael equal to God, and you can't have an angel equal to God, therefore people make it a question.

    However we know Michael is Christ Jesus, the image of his Father, the one who is like God. The idea of Michael being like God would be a complete problem for Trinitarians, hence why we see their assertions online in the form of a question...
     
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    Baruq

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    Thank you, but it is midnight! We are already tomorrow.
     
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    Tsaphah

    Tsaphah Experienced Member

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    Before I answer, I have other things to post. It will take me some time due to other things going on, that I have to deal with. We are not dealing with tradition here; where your Wikipedia information comes from. You may want to read my new post about Tradition.
     
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    Baruq

    Baruq Member

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    Generally, I'm not a fan of Wikipedia. First, because anyone can write anything. In addition, I also had to deal with moderators, especially from Wikipedia france, who feel invested with the power of life and death on who writes in what should be a participatory encyclopedia. If an idea or a person does not have the chance to please them, immediately they delete the posts.
     
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    Tsaphah

    Tsaphah Experienced Member

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    OK, Baruk,
    Let me first explain that we do not speak in Hebrew, or Greek. This is especially true today. Before we can understand those languages, we have to put our minds back into the customs of those people and places. We also must realize the customs, idioms, phrasing, and sentence structure. We (military) had a saying; “Language is code!” Depending on which language you use, it will depend on how many digits/letters, or combinations of these you use. If you are familiar with computer languages, you will understand where I’m going with this. Today, the top 9 computer coding languages are: SQL, JAVA, JAVASCRIPT, C#, PYRHON, C++, PHP, IOS, and RUBY/RAILS.

    To start simply, both of the ancient languages we are speaking about did not use capital letters, or punctuation marks. Sentences did not have spaces to separate them. They also, unlike English have a noun, verb, placement that is different. The Hebrew also was written from right to left. Here is an example:
    Now these [are] the names of the children of Israel, which came into Egypt; every man and his household came with Jacob.” (Exo 1:1 English Translation)

    and these names of sons of israel the ones coming egypt ward with Jacob man and household of him they came” (Hebrew manuscript word for word order Translation)

    In order for us to be able to read and understand these manuscripts, it is necessary to depend on a person who have what are titled hermeneutical training. This is a person trained in knowing which right words to use in the translation of the message. Example: English = “name”, Hebrew and Aramaic has 7 different words for name. (amar, zeker, kanah, naqab, qara’, shem, shum). Shem = Hebrew, Shum = Aramaic.

    Hermeneutics = interpreting (code) of languages, the science of interpretation, especially of the scriptures. The branch of theology that deals with the principles of Biblical exegesis.

    This word is from the Greek word, hermeneia (her-may-ni'-ah) was used by Paul, in his letter about those speaking “in tongues”. (1 Cor 14:26) The other is from the same base, hermeneuo (her-mayn-yoo'-o) which comes from the Greek god of language, Hermes. The other thing we must take into account of a translation is the translators’ background and training. Is he a non-believer? Was he trained in a religious school? What are his beliefs? Who is paying for his skills?

    Getting to my point, a name is used to identify someone or some thing that describes what or who it is. Does it describe shape, looks, material, actions, etc. As far as punctuation, which should it be? Who is like god? Who is like god. Who is like god! I read it as like the last two. They are descriptive of who Michael is.

    Here are a couple of sites you may be interested in checking out.
    http://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/marks/marks.htm

    Chuck Missler July, 2017 - Prepare for End Times Apostasy!
     
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    SingleCell

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    Fantastic post Joshua.
     
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    Thanks for the explanation.
    As you say, we do not speak Hebrew, or Greek. Why did not God have the Bible written in English? It would have saved us headaches! What a lack of anticipation on his part!;)
    For Michael, I have always seen things like this:
    The Devil claims to Eve that she and her husband may be like gods. On this statement, Michael stands up, offended, for to him there is only one God, and it is folly to think that one can be equal to him. In fact, Michael himself never wanted to be equal to him. Then he says: who is like God? That is, how dare you pretend that?
    Michael will fight and defeat Satan during the final war, which is only fair, since he was the first to take the defense of God.
    If we believe that Jesus is Michael, as we have always been taught, then yes, we can think that he took the defense of his father at the moment of the rebellion, and that he will have the privilege to defeat Satan. He did not want to be equal to his father (Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God – Phil. 2:6), but he is the reflection, the glory: God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every other name, so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend—of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground— and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.
    He asked the question "who is like God?”, and God gave him a position that enabled him to be effectively like God, to be his reflection, his glory: He is the reflection of [his] glory and the exact representation of his very being.
    If Michael is not Jesus, it changes nothing. He could be an angel who took the defense of God and that will have a reward in fighting Satan. But Jesus’ role is always the same. And Michael could say that only one is like God, Jesus.
    This is only a personal idea, based on my own reflections, so I am open to any counterargument.
     
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    Earthbound

    Earthbound Guest

    I'm still gathering my thoughts and brushing back up on this subject, but am having another crazy week with the day-job so my time is restricted at the present time.

    I do want to thank Tsapah for the clarification below, as they are correct (in my estimation):

    "He “stands guard over the sons of your people,” = not Jews, it’s Israel! The Nation! These were the people that Jehovah God chose to represent Him. Jews are from one tribe of the twelve, Judah."

    ~~Earthbound
     
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    BreakTheWalls

    BreakTheWalls Guest

    Why did the Watchtower replaced Jesus with Jehovah in Jude 1:5 and if Jesus is able to place demons in dark chains, why can't he judge Satan?
     

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